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Class 12 Geography Pre-Board Question and Answer

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
1ST Pre Board Examination -2023
Set-2
Subject: Geography (029) Class: XII
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70 

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections-A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A - Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Section B- Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section C- Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
6. Section D- Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
7. Section E- Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

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SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Type Questions 17 X 1=17)

Q1. Which one of the following is not an example of push factor of migration?

  1. Political turmoil
  2. Disasters
  3. Stability
  4. Epidemics
Q2. Which one of the following demographer stated that ‘preventive checks are better than physical check?

  1. Malthus
  2. Hartshorne
  3. Humboldt
  4. Ratzel
Q3. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options-
Statement-1: Population grown rapidly during the sixteenth and seventeenth century.
Statement-2: Expansion of world trade during sixteenth and seventeenth century is an important cause of it.

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both the statements are incorrect
  4. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1.
Q4. Which one of the following is not the pillar of human development?

  1. Equity
  2. Sustainability
  3. Procurement
  4. Productivity
Q5. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?


Approaches features Explanation
a. Income approach Human development is seen as being linked to income
b. Welfare Approach It looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities
c. Basic Needs Approach Proposed by Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq in which human choices are considered
d. Capability Approach Associated to Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and resource

Q6. _____ is the westernmost terminal point of Trans-Canadian Railway.

  1. Halifax
  2. Cudbury
  3. Montreal
  4. Vancouver
Q7. Annual growth rate of India’s population is ____ percent as per 2011 census.

  1. 2.24
  2. 1.64
  3. 3.34
  4. 1.05
Q8. Which one of the following is not the main feature of the Phase-I of population growth in India?

  1. Low mortality
  2. Poor health
  3. Illiteracy
  4. High fertility
Q9. “Ram is not cultivating his one piece of land for more than 5 years” – this land comes under which one of the following category?
  1. Wasteland
  2. Culturable wasteland
  3. Grazing land
  4. Fallow other than current fallow
Q10. What is the meaning of “Neeru-Meeru”?
  1. Water & me
  2. Water & you
  3. Save water
  4. Water sustainability
Q11. Which one of the following south Indian states has the highest groundwater utilisation (in per cent) of its total ground water potential?
  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Kerala
Q12. Given below are the steps to generate geothermal energy. Arrange the following in correct sequence:
  1. i. It is so hot that when it rises to the earth's surface, it turns into steam.
  2. ii. Groundwater in such areas (where the geothermal gradient is high) absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
  3. iii. Steam is used to drive turbines and generate electricity.
  4. iv. Geothermal energy exists because the earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth.
Answer Codes:
  1. a)     (iv) - (ii) - (i) - (iii)
  2. b)     (ii) - (i) - (iv) - (iii)
  3. c)     (i) - (iv) - (iii) - (ii)
  4. d)   (iii) - (ii) - (iv) - (i)
Q13. In which ‘Five Year Plan’, the tribal sub-plan was introduced at Bharmaur tribal area of Himachal Pradesh?
  1. Fourth
  2. Fifth
  3. Sixth
  4. Seventh
Q14. What is the name of the headquarter of North-east frontier railway?
  1. New Jalpaiguri
  2. Maligaon
  3. Lumding
  4. Silchar
Q15. In how many zones has the Indian Railways system been divided?
  1. 9
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16
Q16. Consider the following and match the list I with list II and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.
List-I: Ports List-II: Location
1. Paradeep a. Kerala
2. Tuticorin b. Goa
3. Kochi c. West Bengal
4. Haldia d. Odisha
5. Marmagao e. Tamil Nadu
Answer Codes:
  1. a)     1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e
  2. b)     1-d, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b
  3. c)     1-d, 2-a, 3-e, 4-c, 5-b
  4. d)  1-d, 2-e, 3-c, 4-a, 5-b
Q17. Which one of the following is a land locked harbour?
  1. Vishakhapatnam
  2. Mumbai
  3. Ennor
  4. Haldia
SECTION B
(Source Based Questions 2 X 3=6)
Q18. Read the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
  1. 18.1 - What is the name of this railway?
    Answer:         Trans-Siberian railway
  2. 18.2 - Name the eastern and western most terminal points of this railway.
    Answer:     Vladivostok and St. Petersburg
  3. 18.3 - Why this railway is important?
    Answer:         This railway is the most important route in Asia and the longest (9,332 km) double-tracked and electrified trans–continental railway in the world. It has helped in opening up its Asian region to West European markets. (OR Other relevant point)
Q19. Read the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
  • 19.1 - Which type of human settlement shown in the given diagram?
    Answer:     Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements
  • 19.2 - In which state of India this type of settlement (Given in the diagram) are widespread?
    Answer:     Gujarat and Some part of Rajasthan
  • 19.3 - Write any one important feature of this type of settlement (Given in the diagram).
    Answer:     A) Tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement.
    B) More often such a pattern may also result from segregation or fragmentation of a large compact village.
    C) In this case, one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village.
    D) In such cases, generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village. (ANY ONE)
Section C
(Short Answer Type Questions – write your answer within 30 words 3 X 3=9)
Q20. “Neither is there a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.” – Briefly explain the statement. (OR) Briefly explain the concept of Possibilism. 
Answer: Explanation of Griffith Taylor’s ‘Neo-Determinism’ or ‘Stop and Go Determinism’ It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They have to respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents. The free run which the developed economies attempted to take has already resulted in the greenhouse effect, ozone layer depletion, global warming, receding glaciers and degrading lands.

OR

The people begin to understand their environment and the forces of nature with the passage of time. With social and cultural development, humans develop better and more efficient technology. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment. The human activities create cultural landscape. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the space. The earlier scholars termed this as possibilism. Nature provides opportunities and human being make use of these and slowly nature gets humanised and starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour.
Q21. Briefly explain about THREE approaches to human development.
Answer: Explanation about 1. Income approach, 2. Welfare approach, 3. Basic need approach, and 4. Capability approach (ANY THREE) (Book-1: page- 17)
Q22. Differentiate between physiological density and agricultural density. (OR) Explain the main features of second phase of population growth.
Answer: Physiological density = total population/net cultivated area Agricultural density = total agricultural population / net cultivable area (Book-2: Page-5)

OR

The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate. At the same time better transport and communication system improved distribution system. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate than the previous phase. This is impressive at the backdrop of Great Economic Depression, 1920s and World War II.
Q23. Why Konkan Railway is considered as an engineering marvel?
Answer: One of the important achievements of the Indian Railways has been the construction of Konkan Railway in 1998. It is 760-km long rail route connecting Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka. It is considered an engineering marvel. It crosses 146 rivers, streams, nearly 2000 bridges and 91 tunnels. Asia’s largest tunnel which is nearly 6.5 km long, also lies on this route. The states of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka are partners in this undertaking.
SECTION D
(Long Answer Type Questions – write your answer within 150 words 5 X 5=25)
Q24. Discuss about any FIVE important features of that type of agriculture which are mainly found in the region of monsoon Asia.
Answer: Explanation of ANY FIVE main features of Intensive Subsistence Farming (Book-1: Page-27)
Q25. Explain any FIVE factors influencing the distribution of industries.
Answer: Explanation about access to market, access to raw material, access to labour supply, access to sources of energy, Access to Transportation and Communication Facilities, government policy, access to agglomeration of economies (ANY FIVE) (Book-1: Page-37/38)
Q26. How are ports helpful for trade? Give a classification of ports on the basis of their location. (OR) Explain ANY FIVE basis of international trade.
Answer: The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports. Cargoes and travellers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and the storage facilities for cargo.

Types of port on the basis of location:

(i) Inland Ports: These ports are located away from the sea coast. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges. For example, Manchester is linked with a canal; Memphis is located on the river Mississippi; Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on the river Hoogli, a branch of the river Ganga.

(ii) Out Ports: These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports. These serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size. Classic combination, for example, is Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.

OR

Explanation about (i) Difference in national resources, (ii) Population factors, (iii) Stage of economic development, (iv) Extent of foreign investment, (v) Transport (Book-1: Page-72)
Q27. What is TAP? Explain any FOUR purpose of initiating HADP. (OR) Discuss about the measures for promotion of sustainable development.
Answer: Target Area Planning

Purpose of HADP:

These programmes aimed at harnessing the indigenous resources of the hill areas through development of horticulture, plantation, agriculture, animal husbandry, poultry, forestry and small-scale and village industry. (ANY OTHER relevant point (Book-2: Page-67)     OR 

  1. The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
  2. In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
  3. The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet) shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
  4. The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
  5. The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.
  6. The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.
  7. The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centres and market centres.

Q28. “Urban waste disposal is a serious problem in India.” – Support the statement with suitable example. (OR) Describe the problem of slums (ANY FIVE) in India.
Answer: Urban waste disposal is a serious problem in India. In metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, etc., about 90 per cent of the solid waste is collected and disposed. But in most of other cities and towns in the country, about 30 to 50 per cent of the waste generated are left uncollected which accumulate on streets, in open spaces between

houses and in wastelands leading to serious health hazards. These wastes should be treated as resource and utilised for generating energy and compost. Untreated wastes ferment slowly and release toxic biogas to the atmosphere, including methane. (ANY OTHER relevant point (Book-2: Page-99/100)

OR

Explanation about different social, political, cultural, environmental etc. problems related to slum area. (Book-2: Page-101/102/103).

Section-E
(Map pointing questions)

Q29. Locate and label the following points (ANY FIVE) on the given map of India:
  • 29.1- State with lowest population density as per census 2011.
  • 29.2 - Khetri Copper mines.
  • 29.3 - One iron ore exporting port located in western coastal area.
  • 29.4 - Coffee cultivation area in India.
  • 29.5 - One Bauxite mine located in Odisha
  • 29.6 - Kandla Port
  • 29.7 - Amritsar international airport

The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No.29. Answer any five questions out of the following:

  • 29.1– Which state has the lowest density of population as per census 2011?
  • 29.2 - Where is the Khetri copper mines located?
  • 29.3 - Name an iron ore exporting port located in western coastal plain in India.
  • 29.4 - Which states are the main producer of coffee?
  • 29.5 - Which bauxite mine is located in Odisha?
  • 29.6 - In which state Kandla port is located?
  • 29.7 - Which international airport is located in North-east India?
Answer: 

OR

Q30. Identify the following places (ANY FIVE) on the given map of the world:
  • a)        - Name the area with Nomadic Herding.
  • b)       - Name the area with extensive commercial grain farming
  • c)        - Name the major sea port
  • d)       - Name the major sea port
  • e)        - Name the important airport
  • f)        - Name the important airport
  • g)      – Name the important river waterway

The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No.29. Answer any five questions out of the following:

  • a)     – Write a name of an area with nomadic herding.
  • b)     – Name the area with extensive commercial grain farming located in South America.
  • c)     – What is the major international sea port located in New Zealand?
  • d)     – Name the major international sea port located in Japan.
  • e)     – Which major international airport located in Peru?
  • f)      – Name the major international airport located in Senegal
  • g) - What is the name of the main river waterway in Germany?

Answer: 

  1. 30.a – Western part of Madagascar Island
  2. 30.b – Pampas grassland
  3. 30.c – Auckland
  4. 30.d – Yokohama
  5. 30.e – Lima
  6. 30.f – Dakar
  7. 30.g – Rhine waterway

OR

  1. 30.a – Western part of Madagascar Island
  2. 30.b – Pampas grassland
  3. 30.c – Auckland
  4. 30.d – Yokohama
  5. 30.e – Lima
  6. 30.f – Dakar
  7. 30.g – Rhine waterway

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